2018 年龙岩市九年级学业（升学）质量检查
英 语 试 题
（考试时间：120 分钟 满分：150 分）
注意：
请把所有答案填涂或书写到答题卡上！请不要错位、越界答题！
在本试题上答题无效。
I. 听力（共三节，20 小题，每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分）
第一节 听句子。听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。 （每个句子读两遍）
1. （
） A B C
2．（
） A B C
3．（
） A B C
4．（
） A B C
5. （ ） A B C
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第二节 听对话。听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案。 （每段对话读两遍）
6. Which subject does Miss Wang teach? A. Physics.
7. What is Jane doing? A.Reading a book.
B. Playing computer games.
C. Listening to music.
B. Maths.
C. Geography.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 8. What’s the weather like? A. Sunny.
B. Rainy.
C. Cloudy.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
9. How does Judy keep in touch with her pen friend? A. By letter.
10. What color is the dress? A. Yellow.
B. Red.
C. Blue.
B. Through the Internet.
C. By phone.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
11.How much does the girl pay for the dress? A.150 yuan.
B. 180 yuan.
C. 230 yuan.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
12. How many times has the boy been to Beijing? A. Once.
B. Twice.
C. Three times.
13. Whom will the girl travel with? A. Her classmates.
B. Her cousins.
C. Her parents.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14. What does the woman want to do? A. Buy a new ticket.
B. Change the ticket.
C. Return the ticket.
15. When will the woman leave for Mount Huang? A. July 14th.
B. July 15th. C. July 16th.
第三节 听短文。根据所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
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Emma and ten 16 about two good friends Introduction Page Price 17 and interesting including vocabulary, 18 and writing exercises colorful 19 pictures 155 pages 20 yuan * *
II. 单项选择
从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。（每小题 1 分， 满分 15 分）
21. — Excuse me, what’s your name? — A. My — He is A. a A. at A. prize
25. — Do you like the T-shirt? — Yes. It A. tastes — A. How
very soft.
B. feels
wonderful! I like it very much.
B. What
C. What a C. smells
engineer.
B. an B. in B. price
C. the C. on C. pride
name is Susan.
B. Your
C. Her
22. — What does your father do, Tom?
23. World Book Day takes place April 23rd every year.
24. The artist received high from the art community for his works.
26. — What do you think of the film Wonder ?
27. — Now English classes pay attention to Chinese culture than before. — We’re proud of our culture. A. much
B. more
C. the most
28. — China is going to use AI to protect the Great Wall.
— Great! AI is so helpful that people use it in many fields now. A. Must 29. —
— I’m proud of you. A. Although 30. — Beijing is A. putting on
B. can C. should
we were tired, we kept fighting and won the game at last.
B. Because
the 2022 Winter Olympics.
B. preparing for
C. taking up C. So
— That’s right. Many young people want to work as volunteers. 31. —The door bell is ringing.
* *
— It must be the take-away service. I through Meituan APP just now. A. order —
it doesn't rain, we can go.
B. As soon as
C. have ordered
32. — Shall we go camping this weekend? A. As long as
a meal B. ordered
C. As well as
33. — Hakka family instructions to many areas of the world at present. — Yeah. Lots of people show great interest in them. A. are brought
34. — Can you guess ?
— The north of the China. He likes noodles better. A. what he does A. which
B. who he is B. /
C. where he’s from C. who
B. were brought
C. have brought
35. The \"Chinese Bridge\" Competition is open to college students were not born in China.
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III．完形填空
从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。（每小题 1.5 分， 满分 15 分）
Riding a mobike on the street, you might hear some people speaking Chinese aloud. 36 to the right, and you'll see a Sichuan-style restaurant . After walking into a 37 , you see that Huawei smartphones are on sale.
But you're not in China -you're in Manchester in Britain. 38 , you might see similar things in many other cities. Chinese products have been going abroad.
Some Chinese brands(品牌) are also becoming more 39 . In many cities in Europe, stores sell
TCL televisions, Haier fridges and Lenovo computers, reported Reuters.
More than half of US- owned drones(无人机)are 40 models,
designed
according to China Daily. They're not only made in China, 41 and developed in the country.
In the past, most Western people thought Chinese products were cheap and couldn't be trusted. But things have changed 42 . \"Made in China\" has become cool and more people 43 Chinese brands. For example, Huawei, one of China's largest smartphone makers, 44 Apple smartphone sales around the world for the first time in June and July.
\"They are beautiful and offer some unique features that American 45
36. A. Turn
B. Listen B. restaurant B. In fact B. special
C. Fly C. hotel C. In detail C. popular
don' t
37. A. store 38. A. In order 39. A. strict
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have,\" CNN once said about Chinese smartphones.
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IV. 阅读理解（共两节，满分 45 分）
第一节 阅读下面 A、B、C、D 四篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给 A、B、C、D 四 个选项中，选出最佳答案。（每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
A China started the 2018 China beautiful Text 1 countryside tourism activities in April, with \"spring flower\" as the main topic. 56 places of interest and 60 The number of China's \"red tourism\" was Text 2 almost three times in the first half of 2017, as compared with the same period in 2016. Pingtan is famous for its island tourism. Shipaiyang, one of the greatest natural wonders in Pingtan, is shaped like two large Text 3
ships sailing on the sea. Facing east,
46. What’s the main topic of the 2018 countryside tourism activities? A. Ship sailing.
B. Natural bathing. C. Spring flower. D. History record.
47. What’s the number of red tourism in 2017?
A. Smaller than that of 2016. 2016. C. The same as that of 2018. 2018.
48. What's the shape of Shipaiyang?
B. Larger than that of D. Larger than that of
A. Like two ships.
B. Like two fishes. D. Like one mountain.
C. Like one tower.
* *
49. What's Text 3 about?
A. Countryside tourism.
B. Red tourism. D. Forest tourism.
C. Island tourism.
50. Where are the three texts probably taken from? A. A traffic map.
C. A medical report.
B. A shopping website. D. A travelling magazine.
* *
B
Playgrounds offer kids fresh air and exercise. However, each year, more than 200,000 kidsgo
to hospital because they are hurt in one way or another when playing on the playground. So what can we do to improve the situation?
We should make sure the playground is safe for the children. It should be soft and thick enough, so when the children fall, they won't hurt too much. Things like water, rocks or broken glass might cause danger to the kids. Cleaners should check the playground from time to time and clear away these dangerous things.
As a matter of fact, children themselves also need to help keep the playground clean and safe. That means each time after playing they should pick up the rubbish they've produced. If someone finds there is something wrong with the equipment, he should report to the keeper of the playground, so people will come to fix it.
Teaching kids how to play safely is also very important. If they know the rules of the playground, they won't get hurt easily. For example, they should never push when others are on
seesaws(跷跷板) or swings(秋千). If someone is going to jump off some equipment, he should first
look down to make sure no other kids are in the way. Of course, wearing right clothes may also help to keep safe. Clothes with strings(绳) can get caught on equipment which may hurt the kid badly.
In short, our kids can both enjoy themselves and be safe if we are working together to improve the situation.
* *
51. In order to keep the kids safe, the playground should be .
A. fresh and hard
B. new and wide D. thin and clean
C. soft and thick
52.
might cause danger on the playground according to the passage.
B. Rock and air D. Water and grass
A. Rubbish and clothes C. Glass and trees
53. Which of the following actions is SAFE according to the passage? A. Throwing bottles or cans around.
B. Pushing others when
D. Wearing the
playing. C. Jumping off the equipment directly. right clothes.
54. Kids get hurt easily on the playground because they
.
A. keep the ground clean
B. pick up the rubbish D. know little about the rules on the playground.
B. what to clear
D. how to meet the situation
C. fix the broken equipment
55. The writer mainly tells the kids
A. what to play
C. how to stay safe
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C
You may not know who Charlie Puth is. But you may have heard his song See You Again.
The US singer wrote and recorded the song with Wiz Khalifa three years ago for the movie Furious 7 (《速度与激情 7》). It was written for US actor Paul Walker, who died in a car accident while the movie was being filmed. The song topped the Billboard Hot 100 chart(排行榜) in the US for12 weeks.
Now, the 26-year-old Puth's second album( 专 辑 ) is on the way. He showed a song called
Done for Me in public on March 15, 2018.
Puth' s career started on social media. He posted some of his music videos on
You Tube and soon became famous. He was invited on the talk show Ellen twice in
2012. In his own words, it was a “wonderful experience”. “ It actually inspired me to write more music for myself”, Puth told Billboard.
Puth is a gifted musician, having graduated from the Berklee College Of Music, whose schoolmates have won over 200 Grammy Awards. See You Again shows his song writing ability.
The producers of Furious 7 asked over 100 musicians to write a song for the movie. Puth beat all of them in record time—he said it took him just 10 minutes to write the winning song. Puth didn't
know Walker personally, but he understood what it was like to lose a good friend.
Puth is now working on his second album, Voicenotes. \" That comes with a lot of work,\" he told
Popcrush.
56. With whom did Charlie Puth write and record the song See You Again ?
A. Paul Walker.
B. Wiz Khalifa. C. Billboard. D. Popcrush.
* *
57. How many Grammy Awards has Puth's schoolmates won?
A. More than 100.
B. Less than 200. C. Nearly 200. D. More than 200.
58. From the passage, we can know . A. Paul Walker finished acting in Furious 7
B. Puth was invited to Ellen twice in 2018
C. Puth and Paul Walker were good friends
D. Puth graduated from the Berklee College Of Music
59. The right time order for Puth's works is .
① See you again
② Done for me ③ Voicenotes ④ his music videos on You
Tube
A. ①－②－③－④ C. ③－②－①－④
B. ④－①－②－③ D. ②－①－③－④
60. Which is the best title for the passage?
A. A Young Actor B. An Old Musician
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C. A Hard-working Singer
D
After I4 years of working in the fridge business, Stuart Kearns was amazed at how much energy is wasted by fridges in supermarkets.
Most large fridges are set up to defrost ( 除霜) up to four times a day so they can keep
t running
without ice forming in the bottom of the equipment. But usually the fridge doesn’t need to defros several times in a day and each time it wastes valuable energy and means it will cause more wear and tear on the fridge. So Stuart made it his goal to create a defrosting system for fridges that would cut out all unnecessary energy waste.
Stuart's works in a special way by measuring the speed of air movement in the fridge. As ice forms in the bottom of the fridge, the air slows down. When the air movement reaches a certain
speed, the sensors (传感器) on Stuart' s system notice this and
start defrosting.
Stuart says the most difficult part of designing his system was working out the
. problems. Solving them required a good understanding of math—his technology
least favorite subject at school In the end, he brought in some outside help.
Stuart says the benefit of his system of sensors is that defrosting could be reduced to once every
24 or 48 hours. This means the product will stay colder and less energy is used. Stuart wishes to move into marketing his product. 61. Why did Stuart want to invent a different defroster?
A To reduce his work.
speed. C. To make it run better. energy.
62. How did Stuart invent his new
D. A Famous Producer
B. To increase its D. To help save
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defroster?
A. By finding out how fast the air moves in the fridge B. By increasing the temperature of the fridge. C. By making the air move slowly inside fridge. D. By forming ice in the bottom of the fridge.
63. What does the underlined words in Chinese? “wear and tear”mean A. 修复 B. 损耗 C. 节能 64. What problem did Stuart have in designing his system?
A. Nobody offered help to him for his work. B. He didn't understand the fridge design.
C. There was no money to buy materials. D. His math knowledge got him into trouble. 65. Which picture shows the benefit of Stuart’s defrosting system?
D. 结冰
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第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项， 使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
Ancient Chinese people liked to describe someone's age using titles, rather than the exact number. Tang Dynasty poet Du Mu once compared girls around the age of 13 to cardamom ( 豆蔻) flowers coming out. 66
Shufa, meaning to tie one' s hair up, was used for boys who reached the age of 15. 67
Luoguan ,or \" junior cap ” , was used for young men in their twenties. These
men would attend a hat-wearing ceremony when turning 20. 68
The \" year of independence\" was when a man turned 30.
69
When a man turned 50, he reached the\" year of understanding the order of heaveno realize one's own life. 70
Finally, if you were lucky to live beyond one hundred years, you would be titled “Qiyi”
(期颐).
A. It showed that they had become adults. B. They would no longer make any useless efforts. C. At the age of 40, one \"will not become puzzled\".
D. Since then, doukou has been used to describe teen girls.
E. Boys would tie up their hair together when they turned 15.
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V. 情景交际
根据情景提示，完成下列各题（每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 71. 别人无法帮助你时，你想表示同样感谢，可以这样说：
72. 同学感冒了，你劝她最好服些药，可以这样说：
.
.
* *
73. 你想要了解你的鞋子是由什么制成的，可以这样问你妈妈：
Mom,
?
74. 你想告诉同学，你每天花半个小时做运动，可以这样说：
75. 你想知道这场电影已经开始多久了，可以这样问：
.
Excuse me, ?
VI. 看图写话
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子（每小题 2 分， 满分 10 分）
76 76. supper
77
77. in public
78
78. famous
79 79. while
80
80. Sunday, if
VII. 短文填词（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境、音标或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个适当的词，要 求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
Once, people dreamed of a language that everybody in the world could understand. Now, for the first time in human history, 81 / pə'hæps / there is one—English. It is the official language in more than 50 82 (country) and 250~300 million speak it as a second language. Some say that English will be 83
(speak) by half the world's population until 2050.
English is not the 84 (easy) to learn among all languages. It has a large vocabulary—at least 200,000 words are in 85 /'kɒmən / use. Its pronunciation and written form are also very different, even a little hard. 86 some things make it easy.
For instance, there is only one form to speak to someone directly—\"you\".
English is used 87 many different areas. It is the language of transport. At sea, English is the international language of 88 (communicate). It is also the first language of science, technology and education—80 percent of the information 89 /stɔːd/ on the Internet is in English and 90 percent of schoolchildren in Europe study 90 as their first foreign language.
VIII. 书面表达（15 分）
为积极响应我市“创建环保卫生城市”的号召。请你以“低碳环保”为主题，根据以下图示 内容提示，并适当发表自己的观点，写一篇英语短文，词数 80 左右（开头已给出，不计入总 词数）。
Ways:
* *
plant trees.... Advantages: protect the environment..
Ways: ride a bike, walk.... Advantages:
avoid traffic jams...
Others:
Ways: don’t throw litter, don’t spit ....
* *
要求： 文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称及其它相关信息，否则不予评分。 As a middle school student, it’s our duty to help build a green city.
九年级英语试题 第 11页（共 11页）
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2018 年龙岩市九年级学业（升学）质量检查
英语参考答案
★ 评分标准：选择题部分所提供的答案均为唯一答案。 I. 听力（每小题 1.5 分，满分 30 分） 1-5 CABCB 16. stories
6-10 CBAAC 17. simple / easy
11-15 ABCAB 18. grammar
19. cartoon
20. 15 / fifteen
★ 评分标准：16—20 小题凡与提供的答案不符均不得分。 II. 单项选择（每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 21-25 CBCAB 36-40 AABCC
26-30 ABCAB 41-45 BABCB
31-35BAACC
III．完形填空（每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分）
IV. 阅读理解（共两节，满分 45 分） 第一节（每小题 2 分，满分 40 分） 46-50 CBACD 66-70 DEACB
V. 情景交际（每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 71. Thank you all the same.
72. You’d better take some medicine/pills. 73. Mom, what are my shoes made of ?
51-55 CADDC 56-60 BDDBC 61-65 DABDC
第二节（每小题 1 分，满分 5 分）
74. I spend half an hour doing exercise / playing sports every day. It takes me half an hour to do exercise / play sports every day. 75. Excuse me, how long has the movie / film been on?
★ 评分标准：每小题能按照要求写出正确的内容，得 2 分；能写出主要句子结构，得 1—1.5 分；能传递个别信息，得 0.5 分。 VI. 看图写话（每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
76. I had some fish for supper last night. / I will have some fish for supper tonight.
* *
77. Don’t smoke in public./ Everyone shouldn’t smoke in public.
78. My uncle is a famous cook./My uncle is a cook in a famous restaurant./ My
uncle is famous for his cooking skill. 79. The students are having a picnic now.
80. The girl is / was dancing while the boy is / was singing.
* *
★ 评分标准：每小题能写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得 2 分；能基本说明图意， 写出主要句子结构，得 1—1.5 分；能传递个别信息，得 0.5 分。
VII. 短文填词（每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 81. perhaps
82. countries 87. in
83. spoken
84. easiest
85. common 90. their / the
86. But 88. communication 89. store
★ 评分标准：凡与提供的答案不符均不得分。 VIII. 书面表达（15 分）
Possible version:
As a mid dle s c ho ol stu de nt, it ’s ou r d ut y t o he l p bui ld a gr e e n cit y. Here are some of my suggestions.
First, we can avoid the traffic jams and reduce the air pollution by riding bikes or walking. Second, we mustn’t throw litter or spit anywhere. We should keep our city clean and tidy so that we can live a comfortable life. What's more, we’d better plant more trees to protect the environment and make our city beautiful. In my daily life, I can pick up rubbish and put it into the dustbin wherever I go. I can also save the energy by turning off the lights when leaving the room.
In a word, let's get together to make our city greener.
书面表达评分标准
第五档 13—15 分 第四档 10—12 分 第三档 7—9 分 第二档 4—6 分 包含所有信息，内容完整，语句通顺，意思连贯。没有或基本没有语法、拼 写错误，书写规范，词数符合要求。 包含大部分信息，内容较完整，表达基本清楚，语句较通顺，有少量语法、 拼写错误。书写规范，词数基本符合要求。 写出基本信息，语句基本通顺，但句子较简单，表达不够清楚，有部分语法、 拼写错误。书写基本规范。 写出部分信息，表达不清楚，有较多语法和拼写错误。
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第一档 1—3 分 0 分 仅能传递个别信息，通篇只有个别句子可读。 只字未写，或写的内容与所要求的内容无关。
因篇幅问题不能全部显示，请点此查看更多更全内容